Labour and the EEC in the 1970s

[OwenM]

IIRC the man and woman were both to be elected by all voters regardless of gender.

 

[Makemakean]

Looking closer at it, in most elections prior to the 2000s, we would see some real oddities in outcome:

https://www.ipsos.com/ipsos-mori/en-uk/gender-gap

Curious how the Tories’ relative advantage with women voters actually decreased between ’74 and ’79...

 

[Charles EP M.]

IIRC the man and woman were both to be elected by all voters regardless of gender.

There's two thoughts occurring there:

a) What happens if there's a marked difference in votes John Mann MP gets versus Jane Wo-Mann MP? If this is a regional or national trend, questions would need to be asked and Britain won't like doing it (same if it's the other way round and the women are getting more votes)

b) Which MP do people go to for constituency work, and what will their choice say about Britain?

 

[Gary Oswald]

It's one of those feminist policies that is going to have problems once the gender binary is challenged too.

 

[Makemakean]

What happens if there's a marked difference in votes John Mann MP gets versus Jane Wo-Mann MP? If this is a regional or national trend, questions would need to be asked and Britain won't like doing it (same if it's the other way round and the women are getting more votes)

Well, I mean, Britain has had FPTP since forever, and it works fine despite some MPs being elected with more than 70% of the vote, and other with less than 30% of the vote.

 

[Charles EP M.]

It's one of those feminist policies that is going to have problems once the gender binary is challenged too.

Oh dear, it would, wouldn't it?

Well, I mean, Britain has had FPTP since forever, and it works fine despite some MPs being elected with more than 70% of the vote, and other with less than 30% of the vote.

It has, but we haven't had an experience of the 70% and the 30% happening in the same constituency on the same day, or being able to go "South Wales only 30% votes a lot of its women/men"