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Armada of 1779

The Royal Navy being the best in the world doesn't change the fact that in 1779 the French had the advantage in both numbers and in cannons in the channel and it will take months to assemble the Royal Navy to change this balance of power
So why did they employ deception, then wait for the Spanish fleet? This isn't a gotcha, it's a genuine question, as this area is well outside my normal reading.
 
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