”Failed American Revolution” is a much bigger ask than “No American Revolution” in my eyes. The specific circumstances that led the Americans to revolt - as, effectively, a union even before the union was legally constituted - did not have to occur, and were very much driven by the events in the leadup to and aftermath of the Boston Crisis.
Given that there were a fair few points when the revolution nearly did fail I'm curious why you think a failed ARW is a bigger ask than no ARW-do you think the circumstances that were required to push the leadup to and aftermath of the Boston Crisis into actual revolution territory make it much harder for the British to win or?