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American revolution fails??

”Failed American Revolution” is a much bigger ask than “No American Revolution” in my eyes. The specific circumstances that led the Americans to revolt - as, effectively, a union even before the union was legally constituted - did not have to occur, and were very much driven by the events in the leadup to and aftermath of the Boston Crisis.

Given that there were a fair few points when the revolution nearly did fail I'm curious why you think a failed ARW is a bigger ask than no ARW-do you think the circumstances that were required to push the leadup to and aftermath of the Boston Crisis into actual revolution territory make it much harder for the British to win or?
 
With Indian and Malay* immigration to the South, would the racial situation resemble Guyana in parts?
*assuming Malaya becomes part of the British sphere
 
Indeed, which is what I'm suggesting here; historically the new United States (via the individual states) restricted slavery importation legally in this era but here the continued-British rule will likely see the Crown preventing such since they were tied into the trade via politics (and I think money). This higher influx of slaves compared to OTL will see the practice further rather than become restricted to the OTL South as per OTL.
But if a pragmatic Stuart monarchy were to abolish slavery in the 1770's/1780's ?
 
What happens to British India or British Relations with China?
In the "House of Stuart" timeline India is French until the 1820's then not controlled by any European power until the beginning of the 20th century. China is more complex - but see last three volumes of the "Stuart Sequence"
 
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